Just looked at how I did this, and the only difference I can see is that on the database (in your case) MenuItem would only have a Field_ID. This would would relate to ID on field.
Just looked at how I did this, and the only difference I can see is that on the database (in your case) MenuItem would only have a Field_ID. This would would relate to ID on field. Does it work if you remove ID on MenuItem and make Field_ID the key.
Like so: MENUITEM FIELD #Field_ID #ID NavigateUrl Code (Removed Code, Desc) Description.
So, I changed the line in UserLinkMap to: References(x => x. MenuItem). Column("Field_ID"); and I get an error because it tries to retreive Field_ID from the UserLink table, which of course does not exist.
– Pat Apr 4 at 16:12 Sorry, I mean in your database, not the mappings. They look fine to me. – Kohan Apr 4 at 16:20 Kohan - Thanks for your help, this appears to work as expected.
I guess I am wondering if what I had previously is just wrong or it can be accomplished in another manner? I would like the MenuItem table to have its own unique identifier. I ask because this little sample I have is a very simple version of the real world application which is much larger, and making changes to the tables and the mappings in this way would be a very large effort.
– Pat Apr 4 at 17:04 It would still have a unique "ID", Field_ID. I'm starting to think that you don't want to be using a subclass. May I ask why it is?
– Kohan Apr 4 at 20:35 @Kohan - essentially, having a unique identifier for each table has become sort of a standard. Foreign keys can also be used, we just generally do not use them as the primary key. So, it would be nice to have something that will inherently save the Field record as well as the MenuItem record when saving a MenuItem.In addition, this all worked with JoinedSubClass and the previous Fluent version.
– Pat Apr 4 at 20:54.
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