The bible was man made (i think). Men probably wrote it, and they wanted rules upon women to be in their favor.
A couple points of issues. First, Christians believe you don't have to become a Jew to become a Christian. So we can eat fried shrimp and chicken fried steak with milk gravy.
We can even keep our foreskins and shave off our beards. This seems to be very complicated for skeptics to understand for some reason. The big New Testament point is that Gentiles can become Christians and they don't have to become Jews to do so.
Gosh this is so so very simple. This is why Christians don't offer animal sacrifices. This is why Christians don't celebrate Hanakuh.
I'm a Gentile, I don't have to become a Jew. It's ok. So there are things in the Old Testament that are not required of Gentiles or Christians.
The New Testament interprets the Old Testament. Second, The Old Testament contains not only directions for how Jews are to be Jews, but how the Kingdom of Israel is to be governed. Guess what?
We aren't in the theocracy of Israel, so commands concerning their government, don't apply to us either. I know this is very complicated to understand but to Christianity it is as simple as spontaneous generation is to a nontheist evolutionist. Now think with me a moment.
Have you not heard critics talk about how terrible the Bible is because adulterers can be stoned? Are you confused? Judaism and Christianity have been around a long long time and do you think you are the only skeptic who has ever been confused.
Or the only one who has brought up this question. Maybe the problem is with your understanding of the passage. Since Christians often misunderstand atheism and evolution, is it possible that a skeptic misunderstands the Bible?
Yep, it is not only possible but happens way to often. Why do some adulterers get stoned and others get to marry? Here's your problem.
First, you did not grasp the context. Even Christian grab a verse and read it casually without looking at it setting. And second you have discovered one of the complexities of translation, Hebrew to English.
Let me refer you to another passage where the exact same word "rape" is used. Num. 5:12 "Speak to the Israelites and say to them: 'If a man's wife goes astray and is unfaithful to him 13 by sleeping with another man, and this is hidden from her husband and her impurity is undetected (since there is no witness against her and she has not been caught in the act), Now isn't that interesting the word here is translated a cheating wife sleeping with another man.
There is consent going on here. Hmm, isn't that interesting. Let's put it into Deut passage.
If an unmarried guy has sex with an unmarried girl they have a shotgun wedding. The guy pays the father a dowry (still common in some parts of the world today) and he gets to marry the girl. By the way a shekle was usually close to an ounce of silver.
I hope this helps your understanding. This is really quite basic stuff that you could have found on your own by googling. Best wishes.
The man is required to do the honorable thing. If you read the verses, you will find that the focus is on what the MAN SHOULD DO and not what the WOMAN SHOULD DO.
I cant really gove you an answer,but what I can give you is a way to a solution, that is you have to find the anglde that you relate to or peaks your interest. A good paper is one that people get drawn into because it reaches them ln some way.As for me WW11 to me, I think of the holocaust and the effect it had on the survivors, their families and those who stood by and did nothing until it was too late.