Jehovah Witnesses, why would a Jehovah Witness claim that the founder of Jehovah Witnesses is Jesus Christ?

The term "firstborn" does not mean first created as the WTBTS teaches . The word firstborn means that he has preeminence over all creation . It has to do with Jewish rights and position .

Were Jesus the first born of creation, the Greek word would have been PROTOKTISIS. The KIT has the right Greek word, PROTOTOKOS which is referring to positional Jewish Rights of "firstborn" Col1:Vs 16 goes on to say "for by him were ALL things created............." The KIT /NWT has inserted the word other in brackets in Colossians, when it does not exist in the Greek. .. If other were gramatically permissible, it would of necessity exist in the KIT/NWT at John 1:3 that says in the KIT " All things came into existence through him, and apart from him NOT EVEN ONE THING CAME INTO EXISTENCE" Here is where it gets really interesting.

, If Jesus were created, he would be a thing according to WTBTS teaching , and yet ALL THINGS WERE CREATED BY Jesus , The living Word. ,,,and apart from him, not even (emphatic in greek) one thing came into existence. If Jesus (Michael before that ) was not in existence, Who then did the creating?

Shouldnt there be an exception clause here? Or the famous NWT other? If "not even one thing" came into existence apart from Jesus, (Keep in mind Jesus is a thing because the WTBTS say He was created) Then who really is Jesus?

The only conclusion to these verses is Jesus is who he said He is Not the "I have been " but the eternal I AM - Jehovah God BTW; that Lazarus was the literal first born from the dead only serves a clue that something is wrong with the WTBTS use of calling Jesus first one born from the dead .....(@sojourner) Realize this.....Jesus focused on "except you believe that I AM (not the I have been, or I will be) you will die in your sin (of unbelief) to the point the Pharisees wanted to stone Him for blasphemy, "thou being a man, makest thy self GOD! .....and certainly He is! Edit I wish the JW would realize....if other is allegedly ok in Col.....why is it not used in other places, esp John 1:3 (KIT) to continue their theme?

It isnt, because the "annointed," not so secret committee, were not Biblical Greek scholars, thus incapable of keeping their translation consistent. Edit @daisy & Sugar bee, et al. ; Concerning Prov 8: one of the favorite's of JW's proving Jesus is created is actually refuted by their own books.

Really? Yes. In their "Aid to Bible Understanding" under the subtitle "Personification does not prove personality" they are writing primarily to show that the Spirit is not a person.

Yet in doing so, the state:"It is not unusual in the Scriptures for something to be personalized or personified that is not actually a person. Wisdom is personified in the book of Proverbs(1:20-33; 8:1-36) and feminine pronomial forms are used of it in the original Hebrew" (p.1543).

Your are taking those words of Revelation out of context. Revelation itself explains that Jesus was the first and the last in that he was the first born of the dead and the last to be resurrected directly by his Father (God) because the keys of death and hades are now given to him and he does the resurrection now. It is a similar situation with that phrase "the beginning and the end": Colossians 1:14 "In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins: 15 Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature: 16 For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:" When it says, Colossians 1:17 "And he is before all things, and by him all things consist.", this does not mean he is before God: 1 Corinthians 15:28 "And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all."

When you said, "First born does not mean first created.", you were wrong. Here is why. Jesus is the firstborn of the dead to unending life as Revelation clearly says, but Jesus is also the first of God's creations, even as he is first in everything by the glorification of God and God's delight in him as his firstborn Son: Colossians 1:18 "And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence." (PS/ God already had and continues to have preeminence over all things, therfore of God it could not be true that "he might have the preeminence" as Col 1:18 says, for God already definitely has it and has always had it.) But, as was already pointed out, that preeminence is not preeminence over God: 1 Corinthians 15:28 "And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all."

This is the purpose in God's glorifying his Son as he has.

I cant really gove you an answer,but what I can give you is a way to a solution, that is you have to find the anglde that you relate to or peaks your interest. A good paper is one that people get drawn into because it reaches them ln some way.As for me WW11 to me, I think of the holocaust and the effect it had on the survivors, their families and those who stood by and did nothing until it was too late.

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