So you visited a Jewish website. That's nice. But anything you say here has been refuted quite well by those who also are Hebrew scholars, who have examined the Scriptures, and come to believe beyond all doubt that Jesus Christ is in very fact the promised Messiah, as born out by the Hebrew scriptures.
This man can refute any argument you can present against Jesus being the Messiah: http://askdrbrown.org.
A) "Alma" was many times understood to mean "virgin". When Jewish scholars translated the Hebrew texts into Greek a few hundred years BEFORE Christ (Septuagint), they deliberately used the Greek word for "virgin". Moreover, if you read the text as simply meaning "young girl", you run into problems.
Married women were not referred to as "alma", so any young girl who was pregnant was by definition a harlot --not exactly someone who the Jews would posit as the mother of some great figure. Scandalous implications aside, this text is taken to mean an incredible sign from God. A regular woman becoming pregnant isn't exactly something out of the ordinary is it?
Women get pregnant all the time! And WHY is this baby who is a great sign from God only end up being an insignificant footnote in Jewish history, if he even shows up at all? One would think that someone important enough for God almighty to speak of would at LEAST show up on the radar of significance in some way.
So not only is the modern Jewish insistence that "alma" is not virgin in complete contradiction with the ancient JEWISH scholars who wrote the Septuagint, it also makes no sense in the context in which it was written. B) First off, how can the Jews atone for their OWN sins? Secondly, isn't it morally repulsive to suggest that the suffering of one group of people heals the sins of humanity?
Sorry, but you really do play with fire when you assert things like that. Lastly, yes, the OT many times uses the term "my servant" as synonymous with the Jews. Messianic prophecies use the term "my servant" in some cases, such as Isaiah 53.
But remember, Abraham sacrifices a ram instead of his son Isaac. The ram then becomes the symbol of the Jews. But who is the ultimate sacrificial lamb that is required to bridge the distance between man and God?
God the Father sacrifices his son so that the world may live. Jesus is the ultimate ram/lamb, and Abraham's sacrifice was ulitmately prophetic. The ram who is sacrificed so that Abraham's descendants may live, is symbolic of those descendants.
The lamb who is sacrificed so that mankind may live, is what Abraham's sacrifice was foreshadowing. The point, again, is that the symbol of the Jewish people, IS the sacrificial ram. Hence, many messianic prophecies use notions of the Jewish people, as meaning the messiah himself.
Jesus tells the Samaritan woman that: "salvation is from the Jews". If Isaiah 53 truly meant that Jewish people are everyone else's salvation (which flirts with the idea that Jews are to be borderline worshipped by everyone else), then you would read Jesus's words in a straightforward manner. However, Jesus is using a play on words.
"Yeshua", his own name, means "salvation". So yes, salvation DOES come from the Jews, but the Jews themselves are not the source of this salvation. The source of "jewish salvation" for the world is YESHUA.
EDIT: Criticizing Christians who can't read in the original Hebrew MAY be true, but Muslims invariably criticize those who can't read arabic when they find themselves in a corner with regards to violence in the Quran. Yes, it could be true, but something smells rotten in Denmark.
I cant really gove you an answer,but what I can give you is a way to a solution, that is you have to find the anglde that you relate to or peaks your interest. A good paper is one that people get drawn into because it reaches them ln some way.As for me WW11 to me, I think of the holocaust and the effect it had on the survivors, their families and those who stood by and did nothing until it was too late.