Why does the Bible say that 'Thou shall not lie with Mankind as with Womankind"?

Ye shall be as gods", that's the AV, yes. All other Bibles say "God". The word is Elohim, which is a plural.

It can also be rendered "divine beings" as in Psalm 29:1 and 89:7. Angels can be called divine beings or mighty ones. However, I seriously doubt if the tempter was trying to get A & E to be like angels and there were no other 'gods' in their world-view.

They only had dealings with their Creator, knowing him to be God alone. It wasn't an angel that appeared to them to tempt them - it was a serpent, made to be an instrument of temptation. There isn't actually anything in the first couple of chapters in Genesis that even mentions angels or any other kind of spirit beings.

So I doubt if A & E had the idea of becoming like mighty angels presented to them. They certainly knew the absolute goodness of God and that everything he had provided for them was perfect and good. They knew nothing about evil.

It was only after they fell for the lie and succumbed to temptation that they discovered the shame of evil - which is disobedience against God. Yes, God had kept evil from them - their eyes had never beheld evil due to God's dealings with them. But when they allowed the tempter to have dealings with them, they suddenly 'saw' what evil was, and it filled them with shame.

Evil was not sex or having naked bodies because God had already given them the green light to procreate before they sinned. Looks as though they hadn't done any procreating that resulted in pregnancy, however. Maybe carnal desires didn't arise until after they sinned.

I don't know. I can imagine how a chill wind might have begun to blow in Eden after they disobeyed God, and certainly, once they were put outside the paradise garden, into a world of thorns and cursed soil, the need for clothes would be vital, so God provided that for them. It's incredibly intreaguing!

This is just a semi-educated guess, but the KJV was translated mainly from Greek manuscripts for the New Testament, but for the Old Testament, I think they worked from the Septuagint (which was better than the catholics who translated from the Vulgate at that time.). The Septuagint was a Greek translation made in Egypt several centuries BC by the Jewish community there. It did get later updates I think at times to keep in step with Greek language changes.

But the Septuagint is a translation of the original Hebrew ... so can have a small amount of natural errors due to translation, an exact equivalence being unachievable. Whereas from the 19C people were preferring to translate directly from the Hebrew. This was available as the Jewish community kept a Hebrew version, although its earliest extant manuscripts date from the 9C or 10C.

So NIV like most translations woudl use that. Of course it would help to be able to see the verse in Hebrew and have someone with knowledge of Hebrew translate it. You could also find the Septuagint version of the verse abd get someone knowledgeable to translate it.

All a lot of effort for someone though.

I cant really gove you an answer,but what I can give you is a way to a solution, that is you have to find the anglde that you relate to or peaks your interest. A good paper is one that people get drawn into because it reaches them ln some way.As for me WW11 to me, I think of the holocaust and the effect it had on the survivors, their families and those who stood by and did nothing until it was too late.