Why would Jewish people poison drinking wells throughout European history?(why this accusation was ever made?)?

The apocryphal was written by non-Jews were invested in NON-jewish culture & assimilated Jews who were also invested in NON-Jewish culture. They weren't any more Jewish than White Christmas written by the Jewish Irving Berlin. By the time the apocryphal were written, they were a merging of pagan concepts that Jews were coming in contact with.

Rather than being the original Judaism, they were the later side shoots by non-Jews interested in many philosophies including Judaism, & Jews also interested in many outside religions. Some of those outside ideas, were in cultures that Christianity drew from... so they appear in Christianity itself. Judaism does shift from the circle of life, and the ying yang inclusive balance that there isn't really evil and good... into the ideas of evil and good, & more strongly into ideas of moving forward in life as a progression.

It does not consider a separate being in the universe for evil. That's no where in the Tanakh. The Satan passages don't say that -- in the original Hebrew.

It's translations for Christianity that stray from the original. For instance, there is no word, Lucifer in the original Hebrew. Jews didn't have laws prohibiting association with non-Jews.

However, the Church in 500CE did have such laws. The Talmud talks extensively about interacting with others and treating them well. The Temple in Jerusalem had a space especially for visitors to come & join with Jews.

There is a book that describes that shift from the circle of life, to the progress forward and the good vs. evil. I'm not sure he's adequately explored other cultures, by claiming Jews did it first. But if you're interested its "The Gifts of the Jews" by Calhoun (who's Christian).

The book is very good. Though the last few chapters lack in quality research on Judaism & misrepresent from a Christian perspective (the beginning chapters are very good). He's picked up on but in a slightly different way, on what you have.

There wasn't anything suspect in the Jewish traditions. Jesus didn't explain anything. Those passages are generally either misstatements of what Judaism held to begin with, or interpretations of those passages that are misstatements.

For instance, it would be required in Judaism to pull that donkey to safety. So no one was correcting anything suspect in Judaism. EDIT: No!

Marriage isn't "a kind of association" - that's quite an understatement for what marriage is about. Jews could associate and I gave you specific examples. You've ignored them.

Insistence of intra-cultural marriage to retain culture & beliefs for your children (very normal behavior)... is not remotely the same as "not associating with others (a casual event)." Furthermore, there was a high rate of intermarriage defacto ... and C. Church laws (including with death penalties) were then implemented.

Also, you changed your argument from "not associating" to "one kind of associating" without acknowledging the shift in goalposts. Especially this applies back in that time, when extended family was your life --- for EVERYONE one, all cultural groups. So don't paint Jews with a different brush than every other group.

And don't use a words that are inaccurate to what you want to describe, until it's a false image. Did you like my book suggestion?

Much of your "history" is not accurate. And your concept of a "devil" who is always evil and in opposition to G-d is not a jewish concept -- it is Zorastorianism. Any such figure within Jewish theology is a mere servant of G-d subject at all times to G-d's bidding.

"evil" exists in Jewish theology only by the choice of individuals, and all individuals have great capacity for goodness. You correctly note that some jews at some times followed Zorastorinan ideas about the "devil" rather than the Jewish Bible concepts, but that means nothing. There are always from time to time people who get things wrong.

The Jewish Bible itself rejects that sort of notion. LOL about the "marrying" a non-Jew thing. That has ZERO to do with ideas from the middle ages about non-association.

To the extent any aversion to inter-faith marraiges exists it has only to do with concern about leaving the faith, accepting false theologies, and moving subsequent generations out of the traditions we are proud of. (Consider the middle age context however of your wrongly worded "law" -- why would a minority promote association with those who want to kill, oppress, rob and otherwise abuse them? Life for a Jew in Europe living among Christians was generally **** - AND, the Christians actually DID have many many Laws forbidding all sorts of things with respect to Jews.) Alll jews agree with you as to righteous gentiles being wonderful and yes jews are always very happy to meet them or hear about them etc. That has zero to do with "freeing" us from misbehaving Jews.

We are not necessarily bound to misbehaving Jews anyway so your entire discussion on that point is pretty weird -- as is your concpet of "family". Jews ahve always understood Genesis to be very clear that we are ALL our brothers and sisters -- even the misbehaving people. To the extent you think Jesus was teaching we have no right or obligation to defend ourselves -- fine.

If so, it is a false teaching. I'm not quite certain he tautht that though.

I cant really gove you an answer,but what I can give you is a way to a solution, that is you have to find the anglde that you relate to or peaks your interest. A good paper is one that people get drawn into because it reaches them ln some way.As for me WW11 to me, I think of the holocaust and the effect it had on the survivors, their families and those who stood by and did nothing until it was too late.