Is their an equation in physics that proves the immortality of human thought? Does math support this theory?

No equation in Physics could ever prove anything. Especially anything as vague as "the immortality of human thought". Equations can be useful models of the real world, and the form of the equation may suggest other things.

There are equations that are very, very good models for what happens in nature. For instance, the very complex equations of QED give answers that match reality down to like the 9th decimal place. But we're matching something very concrete, like the repulsive force between two electrons.

Also the form of the equation may suggest other things. For instance, any equation that has a square term in it suggests that there might be a second solution, where you plug in -x instead of x. You see when you square x or minus x you get the same answer.

As one earth-shaking example, the fella that came up with the equation for the electron posited that you could plug in an electron with opposite charge and get the same result-- which if you have a lot of guymption would lead you to suggest that there might be electrons and even protons with exactly opposite charges and other properties-- avery gutsy prediction when at the time there were no such observed particles. Well, funny, then some guys went and looked at old photographs and voila, there turned out to be particle tracks that bent in the opposite way-- all over the place. It was just that up until that time everybody had though those were just normal tracks but viewed from a funny angle.

Nope, there are anti-particles, not quite like Superman Bizarro-world, but pretty dang close. You can look at them as particles with opposite everything, or normal everything, but moving backwards in time. Weird but perfectly consistent.

In math, there are a lot of fascianting things, like how 4/3 = 1.333333.... forever. But that's just a property of numbers-- we're just observing that when you divide 4 by 3, you get 1 remainder 1, then you bring down the zero, now you divide 10 by 3 and get 3, remainder 1, and it keeps repeating, quotient 3, remainder 1... So all we're marvelling at is the basic fact of number theory: ten divided by 3 is always 3, remainder 1. That's not all that marvelous to me, it's just a coincidence-- there has to be SOME remainder, and the remainder is going to be either 0, 1, or 2.

The fact that it's "1", and that propagates forever, is exactly equivalent to marvelling that something happened that had a one in three chance. Not all that surprising. Also note that the coincidence is not universal-- it's only because we use base 10.

If we did not have thumbs and counted in base 8, then 4/3 gives 1, remainder 1, but then when you bring down the "0", you have "10" in base 8, which is "8", divided by 3 gives "2", remainder "2". Then you bring down the "0", and you have "20" base 8, which is '16" divided by 3 is "5", remainder "1", so it does not repeat in the same way in base 8 or any other base.