Can Jehovah's Witnesses discuss openly with other Witnesses opinions that differ from WTS teachings?

Greetings First, this question is logically flawed. It operates under the false assumption that there are NT manuscripts which are unchanged. Any belief in a totally unchanged Bible text goes against ALL the evidence.

Only some "KJV-only" people believe that God preserved the Bible word-for-word, and they cannot logically maintain this position since even the KJV differs from its Hebrew and Greek text. EVERY Bible translation in existence must choose between various text readings and make a determination as to what word(s) were lost or added. When this is done using sound textual principles we have a very accurate text and versions which are generally in agreement.

While God did not preserve the copyists from making any mistakes, He did limit the degree of variation so that the *doctrinal* content of the NT was not affected (except for several well known spurious verses added by Trinitarians in the 10th cent.). The NWT inserts the Name Jehovah in the NT because textual and translation principles demand it. Many other translators have acknowledged these principles and placed Jehovah "Jehovah" in the NT, and most other translators have acknowledged these principles because they have capitalized LORD in the NT which ALWAYS denotes Jehovah (Mt.22:44; Ac.2:34).

First, a translator's prime concern is with transmitting the meaning of the original writer. So if the original writer directly quoted from the O.T. the absolute semantic equivalence of KURIOS in the target language must be "Jehovah" (e.g.; Mk.12:25-36; Ac.2:21, 33-34; Rm.10:13) (see Girdlestone's Synonyms of the OT; 43). "In the NT, likewise, KURIOS, when used as a name of God...most usually corresponds to hwhy Jehovah, and in this sense is applied." --A Greek and English Lexicon to the NT, by J.

Parkhurst Second,, there are the occurrences of the tautological "Lord God" (KURIOS hO THEOS) which provide strong evidence indicating the original N.T. text used the divine name. This is proved by the LXX where "Lord God" everywhere signals where "Jehovah God" was replaced. (Mt.4:7,10; Mk.12:29,30; Lk.1:16,32,68; Ac 2:39; Rev.4:8; 11:17; 15:3; 16:7 &etc.).

Another reason would be if the context demanded that the word KURIOS be understood to mean "Jehovah." A good example of this is 1Cor. 2:16.

We would have a nonsensical meaning or an outright contradiction if we did not somehow identify Jehovah as the "Lord" who's mind we don't know as contrasted with the Lord who's mind we do have. (Cf: Mk.11:9; 12:35-36; Ac.2:34; 3:19,20; 4:26,29,30; 2Tim.1:18). In these places "Lord" is textually accurate, though factually incorrect.

Recognizing this, several versions make use of capitalization in Mat.22:44, Mk.12:36, and Ac.2:34: "LORD"! --KJV,JPS. Such principles cover all the places where the NWT and others have restored Jehovah to the text of the N.T. Next, other scholars besides Witnesses have recognized the evidence that the extant Greek N.T. manuscripts were altered and the Divine Name was removed in the second or third centuries.

Jesus Christ himself made Jehovah's name known (John 17:26). So God's name is in the Gospel accounts. All those that call upon the name of Jehovah will get away safely (Romans 10:13,14).

And this was a quote from Joel 2:32. There are a lot of quotes from the Hebrew scriptures in the Greek scriptures. So God's name is in the Greek scriptures.

I cant really gove you an answer,but what I can give you is a way to a solution, that is you have to find the anglde that you relate to or peaks your interest. A good paper is one that people get drawn into because it reaches them ln some way.As for me WW11 to me, I think of the holocaust and the effect it had on the survivors, their families and those who stood by and did nothing until it was too late.