Survey - If I took my magic wand and went "bippity boppity boo" all over you, what would happen?

"Our Lord, the appointed King, is now present since October 1874, A.D., according to the testimony of the prophets, to those who have ears to hear it: and the formal inauguration of his kingly office dates from April 1878, A.D." Studies in Scriptures Series IV (1897) p.621 "the battle of the great day of God Almighty: The date of the close of that 'battle' is definitely marked in Scripture as October 1914. It is already in progress, its beginning dating from October, 1874." Zion's Watch Tower Jan. 15, 1892, p.23 "Now, in view of recent labor troubles and threatened anarchy, our readers are writing to know if there may not be a mistake in the 1914 date.

They do not see how present conditions can hold out so long under the strain. We see no reason for changing the figures - nor could we change them if we would. They are, we believe, God's dates, not ours.

But bear in mind that the end of 1914 is not the date for the beginning, but for the END of the time of trouble." Zions Watch Tower July 15, 1894, p.226 And this was not only taught in "ancient" history. That 1874 marked the beginning of Jesus' invisible presence when he returned and began ruling was not changed to 1914 until 1943, in Ch 11 of "The Truth Shall Make You Free" (See God's Kingdom of a Thousand Years Has Approached, 1973, pp.

209-210) This is the way it was taught in The Harp of God in 1923: "...1799 definitely marks the beginning of 'the time of the end'...we have been in 'the time of the end' since 1799" (The Harp of God, 1928 ed. , pp. 235, 239).

"From 1874 forward is the latter part of the period of 'the time of the end'. From 1874 is the time of the Lord's second presence... It was in the year 1874, the date of our Lord's second presence, that the first labor organization was created." (The Harp, pp. 236, 240).

"There are two important dates here that we must not confuse, but clearly differentiate, namely, the beginning of 'the time of the end' and of 'the presence of the Lord.' 'The time of the end' embraces a period from 1799 A. D. , as above indicated, to the time of the complete overthrow of Satan's empire and the establishment of the kingdom of the Messiah.

The time of the Lord's second presence dates from 1874, as above stated. (Harp, p. 236) Your third paragraph is quoted directly from the red "Paradise" book, beginning on page 146 in the 1982 edition.

This is the same publication that states, "Which generation did Jesus mean? He meant the generation of people who were living in 1914. Those persons yet remaining of that generation are now very old.

However, some of them will still be alive to see the end of this wicked system." (p. 154) But if you attended the Watchtower study a few weeks ago when the April 15, 2010 WT was studied, then I'm sure you caught the "new light" on what Jesus meant: "How, then, are we to understand Jesus’ words about 'this generation'? He evidently meant that the lives of the anointed WHO WERE ON HAND WHEN THE SIGN BEGAN TO BECOME EVIDENT IN 1914 WOULD OVERLAP WITH THE LIVES OF OTHER ANOINTED ONES WHO WOULD SEE THE START OF THE GREAT TRIBULATION.

That generation had a beginning, and it surely will have an end." (Although the Bible clearly teaches that the length of a generation is 70-80 years at Psalm 90:10.) Interestingly, I have both editions of the red "Paradise" book. Concerning the people of ancient Sodom and Gomorrah, the 1982 edition says, "Although they had been very immoral, we can expect that some of them WILL BE RESURRECTED." (p. 179) The 1989 edition, however, states: "Will such terribly wicked persons be resurrected during Judgment Day?

The Scriptures indicate that apparently they WILL NOT." (p. 179).

No - and this is why: http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?sea... 2) Jehovah’s "return" meant, NOT LITERALLY returning, but turning his attention to Sarah to do what he had promised. IN THE SAME WAY, Christ’s "return" DOES NOT mean that he LITERALLY comes back to this earth. Rather, it means that he takes Kingdom power toward this earth and turns his attention to it.

How do you know this? I understand what you are saying...but you have not given us any reason to believe that **this** is what the Bible means by "return" in this instance. I still think it means "return physically".

Please provide the evidence proving that it does not mean "return physically". 3) Since Christ’s return is invisible See passage quoted for 1). Your statement *seems* to directly contradict the Bible.

4) So, then, when the “sign” is seen, this means we would know that Christ is PRESENT though unseen Conclusion does not follow logically from the premises. Nothing about what Jesus said in the preceding passages that you quote suggests "unseen". Jim, http://www.bible-reviews.com.

I cant really gove you an answer,but what I can give you is a way to a solution, that is you have to find the anglde that you relate to or peaks your interest. A good paper is one that people get drawn into because it reaches them ln some way.As for me WW11 to me, I think of the holocaust and the effect it had on the survivors, their families and those who stood by and did nothing until it was too late.