Which is correct: "Neither of them HAVE ever been..." or "Neither of them HAS ever been..."?

Neither of them has is correct. Of them is a prepositional phrase. Of is the preposition and them is the object of the preposition.

Neither is a singular pronoun and is the subject. The verb and the subject have to agree. Would you say Neither have the key or neither has the key?

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There is some flexibility of usage According to Dictionary.com: "As an adjective or pronoun meaning “not either,” neither is usually followed by a singular verb and referred to by a singular personal pronoun: Neither lawyer prepares her own briefs. Neither performs his duties for reward. When neither is followed by a prepositional phrase with a plural object, there has been, ever since the 17th century, a tendency, especially in speech and less formal writing, to use a plural verb and personal pronoun: Neither of the guards were at their stations.In edited writing, however, singular verbs and pronouns are more common in such constructions: Neither of the guards was at his station.

" So in your example, since you do use the prepositional phrase "...of them (pl)...", "has" would be the preferred, more formal usage, but "have" would be an acceptable, if less formal, alternative. ************* I had wondered the same thing about the usage of the word "none". Is it "none is" or "none are"?

Turns out that when "none" is used in the sense of "none of several" (as opposed to "none of a commodity", when it is always treated as singular), then the plural usage sounds more natural and is therefore preferred. So one would say "Although many were pretty, none were beautiful". Sources: Noted .

Has "Has" is the correct form of the verb to go with the word "neither. " As "of them" is a prepositional phrase, the verb needs to agree with the subject "neither. " Sources: Mrs. Wojcik, my amazing ninth grade English teacher tedibear's Recommendations Harbrace College Handbook : With 1998 MLA Style Manual Updates, 13th Revised Edition (Hodges Harbrace Handbook) Amazon List Price: $44.50 Used from: $3.88 Average Customer Rating: 5.0 out of 5 (based on 8 reviews) Complete Guide to Effective English: Harbrace College Handbook Amazon List Price: $4.98 Used from: $5.00 .

Has "Neither" is singular, so the verb must be singular as well. That would make the correct sentence: Neither of them has ever been housebroken. Unless one or both of them has been housebroken, in which case the sentence would be grammatically correct but factually wrong!

You clever thing, is this a trick question? Sources: WordPerfect grammar check .

The correct version is neither HAS. The singular pronoun takes the singular verb. Misspinkpiggy's Recommendations The Elements of Style, Fourth Edition Amazon List Price: $15.95 Used from: $9.99 Average Customer Rating: 4.5 out of 5 (based on 345 reviews) .

I need someone to correct my essay" "anybody good with math" "Is this affirmative sentence gramatically correct: How difficult this math problem! " "please correct " he always has been helping us "" "Math question" "Why is it so popular to be bad at math? " "Does any one have this math book?" "What is Math Gym?

" "Which is correct: two plus five HAVE/HAS become a family of seven? " "What is a good name for this proposed math course?

Is this affirmative sentence gramatically correct: How difficult this math problem!

Please correct " he always has been helping us.

I cant really gove you an answer,but what I can give you is a way to a solution, that is you have to find the anglde that you relate to or peaks your interest. A good paper is one that people get drawn into because it reaches them ln some way.As for me WW11 to me, I think of the holocaust and the effect it had on the survivors, their families and those who stood by and did nothing until it was too late.