Why can Section 4, 14th Amendment be used to by-pass Congress in the need to raise the debt ceiling?

In spite of what Treasury Secretary Geithner suggested... the President does not have any authority to spend or raise money. That responsibility, constitutionally, lies with the Congress. Some are trying to re-define the 14th amendment for political purposes.It will not stand up.

Raising the debt ceiling is, in fact, raising revenue and the President , for very good reasons, does not have that authority. Only Congress has the constitutional authority to raise revenue. Section 4 makes the case very clearly for Congress and against the President.

The United States treasury will continue to receive revenues before ,during, and after an artificial date has been declared as "default day". There are several options open to the congress to avoid "defaulting" and they will choose one. This is a political and philosophical argument far more than a purely fiscal one.

I wish I could edit the question so I could spell United States properly.

Anyway, as I understand from the news, Conservatives are counting on the President invoking this section of the Amendment to save the day at end of the day hoping to make political hay if he does. I have also heard that the there are those in the White House that have considered the use of this Amendment as well.

Having read this section in its entirety, I cannot fathom the logic trail that would be used from getting from "the validatity of the public debt ... shall not be questioned" to "the public debt must be paid".

I cant really gove you an answer,but what I can give you is a way to a solution, that is you have to find the anglde that you relate to or peaks your interest. A good paper is one that people get drawn into because it reaches them ln some way.As for me WW11 to me, I think of the holocaust and the effect it had on the survivors, their families and those who stood by and did nothing until it was too late.